Which is of the statement is correct

Which of the following supplements assists in muscle contraction, immunity, and regulation of blood sugar?

1. Protein powder
2. Fish oil
3. Vitamin D
4. Magnesium

2. Which of the following is the recommended duration of exercise for a beginner hypertensive client?

1. 20-30 mins a day, 2 days per week
2. 45-60 mins a day, 2 days per week
3. 20-30 mins a day, 4 days per week
4. 45-60 mins a day, 4 days per week

3. Marathon training primarily recruits which type of fibers?

1. Type IIx
2. Type II
3. Fast twitch
4. Slow twitch

4. The angle of muscle pull is known as which of the following?

1. Angle at which a muscle pulls against the short axis of the bone that it pulls on
2. Angle at which a muscle pulls relative to the long axis of the bone that it pulls on
3. Angle at which a muscle pulls relative to the short axis of the bone that it pulls on
4. Angle at which a muscle pulls against the long axis of the bone that it pulls on

5. Which joint in the body is known as the saddle joint?

1. Knee
2. Ankle
3. Thumb
4. Atlanto-axial

6. Which of the following represents a portion control strategy for women regarding carbohydrates?

1. 4 cups a day
2. 1 cupped handful
3. 120 grams
4. 3 servings

7. When the scapular adductors are weak, which postural deviation can occur?

1. Swayback
2. Kyphosis
3. Forward head
4. Lordosis

8. What is primarily responsible for strength gains in beginning clients?

1. Hypertrophy adaptations
2. Neural adaptations
3. Environmental adaptations
4. Anaerobic adaptations

9. What is the suggested carbohydrate intake for male clients per meal?

1. 2 palm portions
2. 2 cupped handfuls
3. 1 cupped handful
4. 1 palm portion

10. Client differences are an important part of periodization and refer to which principle?

1. SAID
2. GAS
3. Use/disuse
4. Individual differences

11. For children between the ages of 5 and 12, what should strength training focus on?

1. Sport-specific activities
2. Becoming more flexible
3. Increasing muscular strength
4. Learning basic lifting techniques

12. The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle?

1. Gluteus
2. Soleus
3. Hamstrings
4. Quadriceps

13. A weight training program that divides training sessions into upper and lower body training is referred to as which of the following?

1. Superset training principle
2. Set-system training principle
3. Split system training principle
4. Staggered sets training principle

14. During which stage of the drawing-in phase should the liability waiver be signed?

1. Stage 1
2. Stage 3
3. Stage 2
4. Stage 5

15. Who should recommend a GXT for a client prior to starting an exercise program?

1. Trainer
2. Client
3. Nutritionist
4. Physician

16. Which of the following represents safe load increases for a beginner client?

1. 5-10%
2. 1-4%
3. 12-15%
4. 16-18%

17. Which assessment allows a trainer to understand a client’s lean body and total fat mass?

1. Body fat calculation
2. Girth measurements
3. Scale weight
4. Photographs

18. Which contraction helps to generate enough tension in muscles to contract explosively?
19. Eccentric
20. Ballistic
21. Concentric
22. Isometric

19. A client with celiac disease asks for a nutrition plan, what should the trainer recommend?

1. Refer to a dietician
2. 3-day food log to prescribe meal plan
3. A templated meal plan
4. Give a breakdown of macronutrients

20. Which macronutrient contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen molecules?

1. Proteins
2. Carbohydrates
3. Fats
4. Glycogen

21. Which of the following is the agonist used in the upright row exercise?

1. Triceps
2. Deltoid
3. Latissimus dorsi
4. Gastrocnemius

22. At what age will most adults experience decrease ROM?
23. 40
24. 45
25. 50
26. 55

23. Which of the following should a pregnant client avoid during exercise?

5. Moderate aerobic training
6. Lying in the supine position
7. Stretching before and after exercise
8. Consuming additional calories

24. Approximately how many calories are in one gram of protein?
25. 4
26. 3
27. 7
28. 5

25. What is the appropriate protein portion for men?

5. 2 palm portions
6. 3 palm portions
7. 2 cupped handfuls
8. 3 cupped handfuls

26. When working with a new client utilizing tempo training, which portion of the exercise is drawn out?

5. Concentric
6. Hold at the bottom
7. Eccentric
8. Hold at the top

27. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

5. Vitamin H
6. Reservatrol
7. Beta Alanine
8. Vitamin C

28. Which type of contraction requires the muscles to “activate” but have no movement or change in muscle length?

5. Concentric
6. Isometric
7. Eccentric
8. Isotonic

29. What should a cool-down include?

5. Static stretching
6. Dynamic balance
7. Dynamic stretching
8. Contract-relax method

30. Which of the following forms would you use to gain insight into the daily nutritional habits of a client?
31. Comprehensive client form
32. PAR-Q
33. 3-day dietary record
34. Food intolerance form

31. What is the MOST superficial muscle of the abdominals?

5. Internal oblique
6. External oblique
7. Transverse abdominis
8. Rectus abdominis

32. Which principle do emergency medical professionals use to reduce the pain and inflammation from an athletic injury?

5. RICE principle
6. FITT principle
7. HITT principle
8. NCAA principle

33. How long does the guided discovery stage of the drawing in phase last?

5. 2-3 weeks
6. 2-3 sessions
7. 4-6 weeks
8. 1 week

34. Which of the following does HIT stand for?

5. Healthy integrated training
6. High integrated technique
7. High intensity training
8. Hyper-integrated technique

35. A client is 45 years old and has a resting heart rate of 75 bpm. Using the Karvonen formula, what is their target heart rate at an exercise intensity of 60%?

5. 145
6. 155
7. 165
8. 135

36. Which of the following is the maximum arterial pressure occurring during contraction of the left ventricle of the heart?

5. Systolic pressure
6. Diastolic pressure
7. Heart rate
8. Pulse

37. Which of the following body types will have an inflated BMI?

5. Extremely thin
6. Extremely muscular
7. Ectomorph
8. Mesomorph

38. Which of the following rep ranges is appropriate for a client training for hypertrophy?

5. 1-3
6. 4-6
7. 8-12
8. 12 or more

39. Individuals with hypertension should moderate their intake of which of the following?

5. Salt
6. Fiber
7. Water
8. Fruit

40. When levels of sodium in the blood are too low, which condition can occur?

5. Hyponatremia
6. Dehydration
7. Proteinuria
8. Decreased blood sugar

41. Which of the following determines how many meals a client should eat per day?

5. The trainer’s discretion
6. Client preference
7. According to how the client’s body responds
8. It should always be 5 meals per day

42. If body fat has decreased but the scale has stayed the same, this means your client has gained which of the following?

5. Fat mass
6. Water weight
7. Bone density
8. Lean mass

43. Which of the following is the recommended exercise intensity level for a client with Type I diabetes?

1. Less than 40% MHR
2. 40-54% MHR
3. 55-85% MHR
4. More than 86% MHR

44. A conditioned client’s resting heart rate will be which of the following?

1. Less than 60 BPM
2. 61-70 BPM
3. 71-80 BPM
4. More than 81 BPM

45. Approximately how many calories are in one pound of body fat?

1. 2500
2. 4600
3. 3500
4. 5600

46. What exercise should be performed FIRST?

1. Broad jump
2. Back squat
3. Split squat
4. Power clean

47. Which of the following is a key strategy for nutrition coaching?

1. Identifying and eliminating behavior goals
2. Identifying and eliminating time constraints
3. Identifying and eliminating limiting factors
4. Identifying and eliminating outcome goals

48. How many hours after a meal should a diabetic train?

1. 1-3
2. 2-4
3. 7-8
4. 5-6

49. Which of the following states that energy is never created nor destroyed, it’s just transferred between entities?

1. Newton’s 1st law
2. Law of thermodynamics
3. Newton’s 3rd law
4. General adaptation syndrome

50. In which of the following are the triceps considered the agonist?

1. Bench press
2. Preacher curl
3. Overhead extension
4. Chin-up

51. Which of the following are categorized as carbohydrates?

1. Sugar, animal proteins, starch
2. Fiber, sugar, starch
3. Starch, fiber, animal proteins
4. Fiber, sugar, animal proteins

52. Which macronutrient is the most readily available for energy production?

1. Fats
2. Leucine
3. Carbohydrates
4. Valine

53. A weight loss client is currently exercising 5+ hours a week and hits a plateau. What adjustments should a trainer suggest?

1. Increase k/cal by 250
2. Decrease k/cal by 100
3. Increase k/cal 100
4. Decrease k/cal by 250

54. Which joint performs adduction, abduction, horizontal adduction and abduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction?

1. Spine
2. Shoulder
3. Knee
4. Ankle

55. Which of the following populations are environmental considerations such as pollen, allergies, and extreme temperatures key for?

1. Youth
2. Asthma
3. Arthritis
4. Hypertension

56. If a client is suffering from insulin shock, what should a trainer give them?

1. Sugar
2. Fiber
3. Caffeine
4. Water

57. A client is Type I diabetic and asks for a meal plan, what should the trainer do?

1. Refer to a dietician
2. Offer a templated meal plan
3. Ask what their goal is and then prescribe meal plan
4. Give a breakdown of macronutrients

58. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a female client?

1. 1 thumb
2. 2 thumbs
3. 1 fist
4. 2 fists

59. All activities begin in which energy pathway?

1. ATP/CP
2. Oxidative
3. Glycolytic
4. Aerobic

60. Discussing the nutrient per amount of food is referring to which of the following?

1. Nutrient density
2. Caloric density
3. Phyto-density
4. Zoo-nutrient density

61. Which of the following increases the rate of fatty acid metabolism and decreases the rate of carbohydrate metabolism during aerobic exercise?

9. Fish oil
10. Caffeine
11. Alcohol
12. Magnesium

62. In an endurance mesocycle of a beginner’s program, which rep and set scheme would be most appropriate?

9. 12-15 reps, 3 sets
10. 4-6 reps, 1 set
11. 8-10 reps, 4 sets
12. 2-5 reps, 5 sets

63. Which muscle fiber type is best for competing in a triathlon?

9. Type I
10. Type II
11. Type IIA
12. Type III

64. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do?

9. Stop the workout, offer her water
10. Ask another trainer what to do
11. Refer her to her doctor
12. Ask the training manager what to do

65. Obesity and stress are confirmed risk factors for which of the following?

9. Arthritis
10. Coronary heart disease
11. Type II diabetes
12. Kidney disease

66. When the spine develops an S- or C-shaped curve, this imbalance is referred to as which of the following?

9. Lordosis
10. Flatback
11. Scoliosis
12. Kyphosis

67. A client thinks they injured their shoulder, what should the trainer do?

9. Check out the issue
10. Have another trainer check out the issue
11. Continue training the client
12. Refer them to a doctor

68. If a client is in a hypertrophy-based phase, how many repetitions should be programmed?

9. 2-4 reps
10. 12-15 reps
11. 1-6 reps
12. 8-10 reps

69. A trainer has an explosive-sport athlete client and has them perform explosive movements. Which of the following principles does this describe?

9. Individual differences
10. Progressive overload
11. SAID
12. GAS

70. The systolic blood pressure reading of 140-159 is what stage of Hypertension?

9. Stage 2
10. Stage 1
11. Stage 3
12. High Normal

71. Exercises which include sprinting and weightlifting utilize which type of fiber?

9. Fast twitch
10. Slow twitch
11. Type I
12. Type A

72. Which macronutrient is made up of carbon and hydrogen elements joined together in long groups called hydrocarbons?

9. Proteins
10. Magnesium
11. Potassium
12. Fats

73. When is it okay for a client to become intimately involved with their trainer?

9. If both parties consent to it
10. Never
11. If the trainer’s manager knows about it
12. Always

74. What type of contraction is involved in controlling and stopping a movement?

9. Eccentric
10. Isometric
11. Agonist
12. Concentric

75. Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers known as which of the following?

9. Actin and tropomyosin
10. Tropin and myosin
11. Tropoactin and myosin
12. Actin and myosin

76. Which type of muscle fiber is highly resistant to fatigue and injury?

9. Type I
10. Fast twitch
11. “Couch potato” fibers
12. Type II

77. What is an inexpensive, portable, and common way to assess body fat in the fitness industry?

9. DEXA
10. Bioelectrical impedance
11. Skinfold testing
12. Hydrostatic weighing

78. During training, clients with hypertension should avoid which of the following?

9. Seated resistance exercises
10. Squat jumps
11. Rising slowly from seated exercises
12. Flexibility training

79. Which of the following training principles dictates increasing load or intensity each mesocycle?

9. Progressive overload
10. GAS
11. Quality training
12. Individual differences

80. A bicep curl is an example of which of the following type of lever?

9. 1st class
10. 2nd class
11. 3rd class
12. 4th class

81. What is the appropriate protein portion for women?

9. 2 palm portions
10. 2 cupped handfuls
11. 1 cupped handful
12. 1 palm portion
13. Which of the following is encouraged for nutrition coaching for positive reinforcement?

5. Calorie counting
6. Macro counting
7. Food journal
8. Exercise journal

83. Which of the following is an environmental stressor a client may experience?

5. Job problems
6. Allergies
7. Overuse stress
8. Schedule conflicts

84. The gluteus maximus is located superior to which muscle?

5. Biceps brachii
6. Erector spinae
7. Gastrocnemius
8. Brachioradialis

85. Which of the following is an example of a behavior goal?

5. Lose 10 pounds
6. Increase back squat by 10 pounds
7. Workout 3 days a week
8. Decrease mile run time by 1 minute

86. A client has a history of heart disease, what should the trainer request?

5. 12 min run/ walk test
6. Medical clearance
7. Signed waiver
8. PAR-Q form

87. The Law of Overcompensation and Overload allows for which of the following in regards to intensity?

5. Progressively increase over a period to time
6. Progressively decrease over a period of time
7. Remain the same
8. Acute decrease over a period of time
9. Those who engage in cross training may experience which of the following?

5. Increased risk of injury
6. Positive orthopedic benefit
7. Decreased risk of injury
8. Specific adaptations

89. When the spine curves inward at the low back, this is referred to as which of the following?

1. Kyphosis
2. Lordosis
3. Flatback
4. Scoliosis

90. During a biceps curl, the triceps play what role in contraction?

5. Antagonist
6. Assistant
7. Prime mover
8. Agonist

91. Which of the following is the smallest phase or cycle of training?

5. Mesocycle
6. Macrocycle
7. Recovery cycle
8. Microcycle

92. How many hours of activity should portion sizes for meals be enough to sustain for?

5. 1
6. 2
7. 3
8. 4

93. Which of the following are the building blocks of protein?

5. Fatty acids
6. Amino acids
7. Ribonucleic acids
8. Alpha-linolenic acids
9. A client says they have a headache, what should the trainer do?

5. Recommend they drink water, then stop the training session
6. Give them Advil, then stop the training session
7. Give them a prescription medication, then continue training session
8. Give them Advil, then continue training session

95. If a client has a hard time touching their head to the wall during postural analysis, they may have which of the following postural deviations?

5. Tight shoulders
6. Swayback
7. Kyphosis
8. Forward head

96. Which of the following is the prime mover used in a pull-up?

5. Triceps
6. Deltoid
7. Latissimus dorsi
8. Gastrocnemius

97. “Do not allow legs to bow inward or outward” is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?

5. Hanging leg raise
6. Tube walking
7. Dumbbell incline bench press
8. Lunge

98. A client completed 2 or more repetitions in the last 2 consecutive workouts. Which of the following indicates the client needs a load progression?

5. Henneman’s principle
6. Karvonen formula
7. 2-for-2 rule
8. Harris-Benedict equation

99. Which of the following ranges are needed to achieve maximum power when using 55-85% of 1RM?

5. 3-5 reps, 3-5 sets
6. 3-5 reps, 1-2 sets
7. 1-2 reps, 1-2 sets
8. 1-2 reps, 3-5 sets

100. A trainer has a client request their records; how must that request be made?

13. Over the phone
14. In a face to face conversation
15. Only in writing
16. Asking the trainer’s manager

101. Approximately how many calories are in one gram of carbohydrates?

13. 4
14. 3
15. 5
16. 6

102. What is the term for when inspired oxygen during the recovery phase from exercise is in excess of resting needs?

13. Oxygen deficit
14. Oxygen debt
15. Aerobic fitness
16. Anaerobic fitness

103. How the body breaks down and uses energy for activity is which of the following?

13. Anaerobic exercise
14. Aerobic exercise
15. Energy metabolism
16. ATP/CP pathway

104. Which of the following is a symptom of overtraining?

13. Increase in body weight
14. Decreased number of infections
15. Lowered heart rate during exercise
16. Decrease in performance

105. “Keep shoulder blades down and together throughout the entire movement” is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?

13. Dumbbell incline bench press
14. Chin-up
15. Hanging leg raise
16. Squat

106. The ATP/CP Pathway is best for which of the following activities?

13. Running a marathon
14. 100m sprint
15. 30 minutes steady state cardio
16. Tabata workout

107. How often should information be collected when working with a client?

13. Only on the initial assessment
14. Once a month
15. Every time a trainer meets with them
16. Only at reassessments

108. What are the recommended servings of fruits and vegetables per day?

13. 11-15 servings per day
14. 3-4 servings per day
15. 1-2 servings per day
16. 5-10 servings per day

109. Which of the following intake forms is necessary to ensure no prior medical concerns for a client?

13. Liability waiver
14. Comprehensive client form
15. PAR-Q
16. Recovery assessment

110. A lateral leg raise demonstrates which type of movement?

13. Adduction
14. Extension
15. Abduction
16. Hyperextension

111. When administering a skin-fold assessment, which side of the body should all measurements be taken on for body fat?
112. Left
113. Front
114. Right
115. Back

112. Which type of stretching is beneficial for sports performance and involves momentum?

13. Static stretching
14. Self-myofascial release
15. Contract-antagonist relax method
16. Dynamic stretching

113. High impact exercise could be problematic for diabetics due to which of the following?

13. Muscle cramps
14. Nerve damage
15. Headaches
16. Dehydration

114. The FITT acronym stands for which of the following?

13. Fitness, Intensity, Training, Time
14. Frequency, Integration, Training, Time
15. Frequency, Integration, Total Volume, Tmax
16. Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type

115. Which type of joint allows movement?

13. Cartilaginous
14. Synovial
15. Fibrous
16. Periosteum

116. Weakness and numbness of the face, arm, or leg that is often only on one side of the body refer to which condition?

13. Stroke
14. Heart attack
15. Diabetes
16. Pancreatitis

117. In which of the following is the soleus considered the prime mover?

13. Leg extension
14. Hamstring curl
15. Seated calf raise
16. Standing calf raise

118. Which of the following is the best way to earn a client’s trust when they are feeling the water before jumping in?

13. Utilize a plan that has worked for similar clients
14. Let the client tell you what they want the plan to be
15. Dictate to the client what the plan will be
16. Create a plan that you have both jointly discovered

119. Which of the following markers is an easy way to assess hydration levels in the body?

13. Paleness of skin
14. Excessive sweating
15. Urine color
16. Increased saliva

120. In a client’s training cycle, one day or training session is known as which of the following?

13. Microcycle
14. Mesocycle
15. Macrocycle
16. Peak Cycle

121. Which of the following is required for weight loss and can also result in loss of lean body mass?

9. Positive energy balance
10. Excess calories
11. Negative energy balance
12. Total energy expenditure

122. Which body type has a slower metabolic rate and does not tolerate carbohydrates well?

9. Endomorph
10. Mesomorph
11. Ectomorph
12. Endo-mesomorph

123. The “hunchback”, or rounded appearance of the upper back is known as which postural deviation?

9. Kyphosis
10. Lordosis
11. Forward head
12. Swayback

124. Maximal heart rate is calculated by subtracting your age from:

9. 100
10. 180
11. 220
12. 200

125. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a male client?

9. 1 thumb
10. 2 thumbs
11. 1 fist
12. 2 fists

126. Which of the following is primarily responsible for strength gains in youth clients?

9. Hypertrophy training
10. Neurological factors
11. Power training
12. Environmental factors

127. Which of the following is caused by pain or stiffness in the skeletal joints?

9. Asthma
10. Hypertension
11. Arthritis
12. Coronary heart disease

128. What exercise is most appropriate for testing muscular endurance?
129. Push-up
130. Bench press
131. Back squat
132. Bicep curl

129. The need for different phases of training helps to prevent which of the following?

5. Peak performance
6. Rest and recovery
7. Enhanced performance
8. Overtraining

130. Which joint permits limited gliding movement and can be found in the bones of the wrist?

9. Arthrodial
10. Condyloid
11. Ball and socket
12. Trochoidal

131. High Normal blood pressure is categorized as which of the following?

9. 140-159/90-99
10. 120/80
11. 130-139/85-89
12. 160/100

132. What occurs when exercise begins and the intake of oxygen doesn’t immediately meet the demands?

9. Oxygen deficit
10. Oxygen debt
11. Aerobic fitness
12. Anaerobic fitness

133. Which resistance training system helps to increase intensity and optimize time?

9. Rest-pause
10. Pyramid
11. Occlusion
12. Superset
13. Which of the following is the best carbohydrate source to consume for weight/fat loss?

9. Minimally processed, slow digesting
10. Processed quickly, fast acting
11. A combination of fast and slow carbohydrates
12. Moderately processed, absorbed quickly

135. Which of the following is an acceptable body fat range for a male client?

9. 6-9%
10. 10-14%
11. 15-18%
12. 19-23%

136. Which of the following is part of stage 1 of the drawing-in phase?

9. Demonstrating sincerity
10. Data collection
11. Feeling the water
12. Goal setting

137. Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition?

9. A cheat meal once a week
10. Meal prep routine
11. Adequate sleep and recovery
12. Repetitive weekends full of not following the plan

138. When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage?

9. Heimlich maneuver
10. Valsalva maneuver
11. Mueller maneuver
12. Diaphragmatic maneuver

139. Which type of muscle arrangement runs parallel to the longitudinal axis of the muscle?

9. Parallel
10. Unipennate
11. Triangular
12. Fusiform

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